A.C.Pike
Introduction
In this article, I will demonstrate why the Authorised Version of the Bible is superior in text and translation to the English Standard Version of the Bible.
How many men did God slay?
In 1 Samuel 6:19 of the AV it says, "And he smote the men of Bethshemesh, because they had looked into the ark of the Lord, even he smote of the people fifty thousand and threescore and ten men: and the people lamented, because the Lord had smitten many of the people with a great slaughter." The AV says that God killed 50, 070 men. This is the reading found in Hebrew manuscripts of the Old Testament.
In 1 Samuel 6:19 of the ESV bible it says, "And he struck some of the men of Beth-shemesh, because they looked upon the ark of the Lord. He struck seventy men of them, and the people mourned because the Lord had struck the people with a great blow." The ESV bible says that God slew 70 men. There is no Hebrew manuscript in existence that supports the insertion of 70 men. In fact, even in the footnotes of the ESV bible it reads, "Most Hebrew manuscripts struck of the people seventy men, fifty thousand men."
So, as we can see, the AV correctly uses the rendering found in ancient Hebrew manuscripts of the Old Testament. Whereas, the ESV bible has chosen to use a number that has no basis in any Hebrew manuscript!
How old was Saul when he ruled?
In 1 Samuel 13:1 of the AV it says, "Saul reigned one year; and when he had reigned two years over Israel." The AV says that Saul reigned for a year, and then later on reigned over Israel for two years.
In 1 Samuel 13:1 of the ESV bible it says, "Saul lived for one year and then became king, and when he had reigned for two years over Israel." The ESV says that Saul reigned after he had lived for just one year. In other words, Saul was a one year old when he began to reign!
So, the AV says that Saul ruled for a year (up until that point), then ruled for sometime after that, but the ESV says that Saul lived for only a year and then began to rule at the age of one. The ESV makes Saul one year old when he became king. Saul could not have been a baby when he ruled over Israel as he chose an army of "three thousand men" (1 Samuel 13:1 KJB).
Who killed Goliath, was it David or Elhanan?
In 1 Samuel 17:50 of the AV it says, "So David prevailed over the Philistine with a sling and with a stone, and smote the Philistine, and slew him; but there was no sword in the hand of David." So, in this account we have king David killing Goliath the Philistine. Over in 2 Samuel 21:19 of the KJB it says that, "there was again a battle in Gob with the Philistines, where Elhanan the son of Jaareoregim, a Bethlehemite, slew the brother of Goliath the Gittite, the staff of whose spear was like a weaver's beam." So, in this second account it states that there was another battle and in this battle, Elhanan killed "the brother of Goliath."
In 1 Samuel 17:50 of the ESV bible it says, "So David prevailed over the Philistine with a sling and with a stone, and struck the Philistine and killed him. There was no sword in the hand of David." So, in this account we have (just like the KJB) king David killing Goliath the Philistine. Over in 2 Samuel 21 19 of the ESV bible it says, "And there was again war with the Philistines at Gob, and Elhanan the son of Jaare-oregim, the Bethlehemite, struck down Goliath the Gittite, the shaft of whose spear was like a weaver's beam." So, in this second account it states that there was another battle and in this battle, Elhanan killed "Goliath the Gittite."
As we can see, the AV accurately states that king David killed Goliath (1 Samuel 17:50) and that Elhanan killed Goliath's brother (2 Samuel 21:19). The ESV, however, incorrectly attributes the death of Goliath to both king David (1 Samuel 17:50) and Elhanan (2 Samuel 21:19).
Rhino or Ox
In Psalm 92:10 of the AV it says, "But my horn shalt thou exalt like the horn of an unicorn: I shall be anointed with fresh oil." The KJB mentions that the Psalmists' horn will be exalted like that of "the horn of the unicorn" (Psalm 92:10 KJB).
In Psalm 92:10 of the ESV bible it says, "But you have exalted my horn like that of the wild ox." The ESV mentions that the Psalmists' horn (singluar) will be exalted "like that of the wild ox" (Psalm 92:10 ESV).
(Before I continue with the explanation of this scripture, I would like to point out the reason why the AV uses the word 'unicorn.' When the KJB uses the term 'unicorn', it did 'NOT' refer to the mythical horse with a horn upon it's head, it referred to the Latin word 'unicornus' which means 'single horn.' So, when the translators of the AV uses the word 'unicorn', they were referring to a single horn animal, not the mythical horse. This is seen from Isaiah 34:7 of the AV where the translators use the word 'unicorn' in the text, but supply a marginal note explaining that the word means 'rhinoceros.' So, the 'unicorn' in the AV is a rhino, not a mythical horse with a horn.
The AV says "my horn" (Psalm 92:10 AV) denoting one horn. It then likens the Psalmists one (my) horn to that of the single horn of a rhino ('unicorn'). The ESV, however, likens "my horn" (Psalm 92:10 ESV), in the singular to that of an ox. The only problem with this is that an oxen has two horns and not one. So, the AV is correct when comparing the Psalmists' single horn with that of a rhino.
Was wisdom created?
In Proverbs 8:22 of the AV it says, "The Lord possessed me in the beginning of his way, before his works of old." Here, the KJB informs us that God "possessed" his wisdom "in the beginning" long before "his works of old" (Proverbs 8:22). So, the KJB tells us that God used his wisdom in the act of creation.
In Proverbs 8:22 of the ESV bible it says, "The Lord possessed me at the beginning of his work, the first of his acts of old.". Here, the ESV bible informs us that God had only "possessed" wisdom "at the beginning of his works" and that this wisdom was "the first of his acts of old" (Proverbs 8:22).
The AV correctly informing us that God's wisdom is eternal. The ESV bible, on the other hand, is saying that wisdom is created. How can wisdom be created when God needed wisdom to create everything?
Jesus is eternal.
In Micah 5:2 of the AV it says, " But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting." The AV states that Israel's Ruler, Jesus, is from "everlasting." It makes the clear statement that Jesus Christ is eternal - with out beginning or end.
In Micah 5:2 of the ESV bible it says, "But you, O Bethlehem Ephrathah, who are too little to be among the clans of Judah, from you shall come forth for me one who is to be ruler in Israel, whose coming forth is from of old,from ancient days." The ESV bible makes two claims here. The first is that Jesus is said to be "coming forth" (Micah 5:2), suggesting that he had a pint of origin. The second that he is from "ancient days" (Micah 5:2), merely implying that he is old, and not eternal.
The AV defends the eternal nature of our Lord Jesus Christ, thus proving that Jesus is the none other than Jehovah God.
Jesus' Genealogy
In Matthew 1:7 & 1:10 of the AV it says that Jesus Christ was descended from the royal line of king "Asa" (v7) and king "Amon" (v10).
In Matthew 1:7 & 1:10 0f the ESV bible it says that Jesus Christ was descended from the royal line of "Asaph" (v7) the musician and "Amos" (v10) the prophet.
As Jesus is the King of Israel from the royal line of king David (v6), then it correctly follows that the children born down the line of king David are of royal decent, i.e. kings, not a musician and prophet.
Whale or Fish?
In Matthew 12:40 of the AVit says, "For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth." The KJB tells us that Jonah was swallowed by a whale (Matthew 12:40).
In Matthew 12:40 of the ESV bible it says, "For just as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the great fish, so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth." The ESV bible tells us that Jonah was swallowed by a fish (Matthew 12:40).
So, the AV informs us that Jonah was swallowed by a "whale", whereas both the ESV reads, "fish." In Matthew 12:40 the word used in the Greek New Testament is 'ketos.' According to Greek Lexicons and Scholars, the word 'ketos' means 'whale.' It is from the very same Greek word that we derive the term 'Cetology', which is the study of whales.
If the bible writer (Matthew) wanted to use the word 'fish', he could have used the Greek word 'ichthuas' to convey that meaning. For example, in the account of Jesus feeding the 5,000 (Matthew 14:13-21), Jesus feeds the people with "two fishes" (v17). The Greek word used here is 'icthuas' and means, 'fishes.'
Also, there is a big difference between a whale and a fish. A whale is a mammal that expresses milk, gives birth to live calves, has an air spout, and doesn't have gills and scales. Whereas, fish have scales and gills, and lay eggs
Prophets or Isaiah?
In Mark 1:2 of the AV it says, "As it is written in the prophets, Behold, I send my messenger before thy face, which shall prepare thy way before thee." In the KJB the word "prophet" (Mark 1:2) is used.
In Mark 1:2 of the ESV bible it says, "As it is written in Isaiah the prophet,“Behold, I send my messenger before your face, who will prepare your way," In the KJB the word "Isaiah" (Mark 1:2) is used.
The first part of the scripture is a quote taken from the book of Malachi, "Behold, I will send my messenger, and he shall prepare the way before me" (Malachi 3:1 AV). The second part of the scripture is taken from the book of Isaiah, "the voice of him that crieth in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the LORD, make straight in the desert a highway for our God" (Isaiah 40:3 AV). As we can see, both of these scriptures are derived from two separate sources ( the 'prophets' Isaiah and Malachi), but the ESV bible attribute the whole of this scripture (Mark 1:2) to just one prophet, Isaiah.
So, the AV uses 'prophets' to refer to both the quotes of Isaiah and Malachi. Whereas, the ESV bible reads, 'Isaiah.' It is clear from the context of the passage in question that two prophets, not one prophet (Isaiah) are quoted by John the Baptist.
Her or Their Purification
In Luke 2:22 of the AV it says, "And when the days of her purification according to the law of Moses were accomplished, they brought him to Jerusalem, to present him to the Lord." In the account recorded by the KJB, it says that under the Mosaic law, a woman who had given birth to a child needed to attend the Jewish temple to perform a purification ritual for herself.
In Luke 2:22 of the ESV bible it says, "And when the time came for their purification according to the Law of Moses, they brought him up to Jerusalem to present him to the Lord." In the account recorded by the ESV bible, it says that under the Mosaic Law, w woman who had given birth to a child needed to attend the Jewish temple to perform a ritual for both herself and her child.
Who, according to the Mosaic Law, needed to be purified? If we take a look at Leviticus 12:2-4, it reads, "Speak unto the children of Israel, saying, If a woman have conceived seed, and born a man child: then she shall be unclean seven days; according to the days of the separation for her infirmity shall she be unclean. And in the eighth day the flesh of his foreskin shall be circumcised. And she shall then continue in the blood of her purifying three and thirty days; she shall touch no hallowed thing, nor come into the sanctuary, until the days of her purifying be fulfilled" (Leviticus 12:2-4 'KJB'), it informs us that it is "her" (v2), the woman, not the child, that is "unclean", as a result, she must "continue in the blood of her purifying" (v4).
The KJB correctly uses the word "her" that can be found in Luke 2:22 of the AV and Leviticus 12:2-4 of BOTH the KJB and the ESV bible
Galilee or Judea?
In Luke 4:44 of the AV it says, "And he preached in the synagogues of Galilee." Luke 4:44 of the KJB says that Jesus preached in Galilee.
In Luke 4:44 of the ESV bible it says, "And he was preaching in the synagogues of Judea." Luke 4:44 of the ESV says that Jesus preached in Judea.
Did you notice that the KJB gives a different location to that of the ESV? The AV reads, "Galilee", whereas, the ESV uses "Judea" at Luke 4:44. In Luke 4:31 of both the KJB and the ESV it says that Jesus was in Capernaum. Capernaum is in Galilee (Luke 4:31'AV and the ESV). So, Jesus was in Galilee. - Capernaum is in Galilee, not in Judea.
Gadarenes or Gerasenes?
In Luke 8:26 of the AV it says, "And they arrived at the country of the Gadarenes, which is over against Galilee." The AV places the events of Luke chapter 8 in the region of "Gadarenes" (Luke 8:26).
In Luke 8:26 of the ESV bible it says, "Then they sailed to the country of the Gerasenes, which is opposite Galilee." The ESV bible places the events of Luke chapter 8 in the region of Gerasenes" (Luke 8:26).
Which one is correct?
If we look at the geographical locations of both the areas of "Gadarenes" (Luke 8:26 'AV') and "Gerasenes" (Luke 8:26 ESV) then we will see that Gadarenes is next to Galilee in location. However, Gerasenes is about 33 - 35 miles away from Galilee! This presents a problem for people that advocate that 'Gerasenes' is the correct reading. In Luke 8:26-39 it says that the herd of swine ran into the sea (of Galilee). So, if the swine were originally in 'Gerasenes (NLT and NIV), then they would have had to have made a 35 miles trip to run into the sea. Whereas, if they were in the area of' Gadarenes (AV)', then they would only have had to jump over the cliff into the sea of Galilee that was below, but if they were in.Gerasenes, then they would have had to travel to Galilee which is about 33 - 35 miles in distance.
So, the AV is correct in using the word 'Gadarenes' in Luke 8:26.
Did Jesus go to the feast or not?
In John 7:8 of the AV it says, "Go ye up unto this feast: I go not up 'yet' unto this feast: for my time is not yet full come. When he had said these words unto them, he abode still in Galilee. But when his brethren were gone up, then went he also up unto the feast, not openly, but as it were in secret" In the AV it contains the words " not yet."
In John 7:8 of the ESV bible it says, "You go up to the feast. I am not going up to this feast, for my time has not yet fully come." The ESV bible omits the word "yet" before "going up to this feast" (John 7:8).
In John 7:8-10 we have the account where Jesus attended a feast. The bible tells us that Jesus said, "Go ye up unto this feast: I go not up 'yet' unto this feast: for my time is not yet full come. When he had said these words unto them, he abode still in Galilee. But when his brethren were gone up, then went he also up unto the feast, not openly, but as it were in secret" (John 7:8-10 AV). The ESV tend to follow certain manuscripts that omit the words "yet", - but in doing so it makes Jesus out to be a liar! How you may ask? By implying that Jesus stated that he wasn't going to go to the feast, but then after saying these words, he did the exact opposite and went up to the feast. The KJB, however, is clear in that it emphatically states that Jesus didn't go up to the feast "yet" implying that he didn't go at that particular time, but went at a later date. By reading the KJV we can see that Jesus 'DIDN'T' lie at all! He just stated that at that particular time he wasn't ready to attend the feast.
The AV vindicates the Lord Jesus.
Fruit of the Spirit or Fruit of the Light
In Ephesians 5:9 of the AV it says, "(For the fruit of the Spirit is in all goodness and righteousness and truth;)." The AV uses the phrase "fruit of the Spirit" (Ephesians 5:9 AV).
In Ephesians 5:9 of the ESV bible it says, "(for the fruit of light is found in all that is good and right and true)." The ESV bible uses the phrase, "light of the Spirit" (Ephesians 5:9 ESV).
But, which one is correct?
If we take a look at Galatians 5:22 in both the KJV and the ESV bibles, we will see that they both say, "fruit of the Spirit is love" (AV and the 'ESV'). So, the AV uses "fruit" in both Ephesians 5:9 and Galatians 5:22 whilst the ESV bible uses "light" in Ephesians 5:9 and "fruit" in Galatians 5:22.
The AV is consistent in it's use of the term "fruit" (Ephesians 5:9 and Galatians 5:22).
Did all the Israelites sin against God?
In Hebrews 3:16 of the AV it says, "For some, when they had heard, did provoke: howbeit not all that came out of Egypt by Moses." The KJB says that not all the people that were delivered from Egypt sinned against God.
In Hebrews 3:16 of the ESV bible it says, "For who were those who heard and yet rebelled? Was it not all those who left Egypt led by Moses?" The ESV bible says that all the people that were delivered from Egypt sinned against God.
Did all the people that were delivered from Egypt sin against God or not? The answer is no. Not all the people that came up from the land of Egypt sinned against God, both Joshua and Caleb remained faithful to God by not bowing down to and worshipping the golden calf (as correctly recorded in the AV).
Angel or Eagle?
In Revelation 8:13 of the AV it says, "And I beheld, and heard an angel flying through the midst of heaven, saying with a loud voice, Woe, woe, woe, to the inhabiters of the earth by reason of the other voices of the trumpet of the three angels, which are yet to sound!" The AV says that an angel is flying in heaven proclaiming a message.
In Revelation 8:13 of the ESV bible it says "Then I looked, and I heard an eagle crying with a loud voice as it flew directly overhead, “Woe, woe, woe to those who dwell on the earth, at the blasts of the other trumpets that the three angels are about to blow!” The ESV bible says that an eagle is flying in heaven proclaiming a message.
Have you ever heard an eagle proclaim a message?
Conclusion
As we can see, the Authorised is the accurate word of God.
References
AV: The Authorised Version.
ESV: English Standard Version, 2001 published by Crossway Bibles.
http://brandplucked.webs.com/kjbarticles.htm by Will Kinney
http://av1611.com/kjbp/ by Brandon Staggs
